I do not understand your sentence here, [@catchamber]. "If we have free will, the Judeo-Christian God isn't omnipotent, omniscient, and the creator of everything, because those two conditions are mutually exclusive."

Which two criteria are mutually exclusive? Free will and omnipotence, free will and omniscience or free will and being the creator of everything? I think regardless of the answer I'll have some other idea about that, but I should clarify first.